POL 101: A Question about Representation
Are the interests of a given state different than the interests of the people living in that state?
As a means of establishing a broader discussion of the topic of representation as it relates to states let me ask a simple question: in what way do you think that the interests of a state (Florida, New York, Montana—it matter not which one) are separable from the interests of the people living in that state?
In other words, which of the following is true:
a) The interests of the state of Alabama = the interests of the people of Alabama.
b) The interests of the state of Alabama is somehow different than the interests of the people of Alabama.
This question is relevant to the Repeal Amendment under discussion* as well as to the notion that the 17th Amendment can be construed as somehow problematic. (It is further relevant to the notion that Washington, D.C. is some sort of entity alien and apart from the citizens of the states).
So: thoughts? And if one goes with “b” then in what way are the interests of the state are different that those of the people who lived in that state.